RTPMarine wrote:I recognize that American fiscal policy means a lot to you, but please tell me that you are up to date on economic principles past 1912. Too many metalbugs choose to stack because they are spooked by their government (which they have full control of, they just don't know it). Don't be a dinosaur--learn how the world is working around you in the present day.
The present day? You mean the Keynes general theory from 1935? You do understand that just because a theory is old doesn’t mean it does not work (gravity, supply, demand, relativity)… But if you’re looking for a newer reference How about Anderson 2007 “The Value of Money”,
http://library.mises.org/books/Benjamin%20Anderson/The%20Value%20of%20Money.pdfGuess what, money (as a store of wealth) still comes from the same place.
RTPMarine wrote: When has any default ever not caused more spending??
2008-2012 and beyond??? (enough said on that point).
RTPMarine wrote: Also, bailouts have no effect on the value of the dollar. Did the dollar collapse because we bailed out the automakers? No.
I certainly did not say it would lead to a collapse. But is your dollar worth more today or in 2008? Thus your dollar has less purchasing power… That did not happen because businesses are greedy, that happened because the FED and Treasury have made more dollars, thus more dollars chasing the same assets means higher prices, thus less stuff purchased per dollar, thus your dollar has less value. You yourself used the idea of cheaper dollars earlier in this thread…
RTPMarine wrote: You didn't understand the point. I'll rephrase: student loans by definition cannot go "underwater". Even if potential employers would rather hire highschoolers than college graduates, the underlying value of the loan is not represented as collateral to the banks. When homes were suddenly worth less than what the bank was owed, what happened to the shortfall? A student loan does not have the same underlying value implied in the loan. There can be no "pinch", even if we continue towards default.
Lets lay this out a little better. I borrow $100,000 to buy a house, the house goes down in value to $50,000 I shortsale. $50,000 is now gone from the back, thus a default. Now I borrow $100,000 to get a degree, I pay back $50,000 before I realize that I will never make back the money. I can decide not to pay, as I showed earlier this is already being done by about 25% of the student loan borrowers, thus $50,000 is now lost… Same effect, only its actually worse with the student loan because after borrowing $100,000 I could not pay from the very beginning and the bank has no asset at all to reclaim at least some of its money.
RTPMarine wrote: The housing bubble was based on inflated prices. The prices were the bubble.
Those inflated price came about due to government backed loans being used to inflate the prices. That sounds familiar right? As a matter of fact you can read about the fact that government intervention into higher education by offer these bellow market rate loans has driven up the cost here:
http://www.usnews.com/opinion/articles/2011/11/23/why-the-government-is-to-blame-for-high-college-costs it’s a well researched article.
RTPMarine wrote: We are currently running a $16 Trillion debt and still experiencing GDP growth and job recovery.
You do understand that GDP is measured in dollars correct? Thus, if there is constant monetary inflation, and that rate of inflation is greater than the rate of actual GDP growth (held at a constant monetary supply), then it will always appear that GDP is going up. Actually according to
http://www.shadowstats.com/alternate_data/gross-domestic-product-charts real GDP has actually been negative since 2004 once you take this inflationary distortion into consideration.
Also, job recovery as compared to when: We are still well below our 2008 numbers for the number of people employed, thus there has been no job recovery.
RTPMarine wrote: in the particular situation of student loans, I think economic growth via investment does occur, to an extent
An investment is an undertaking that has an entrepreneur that determines that he/she can create a monetary profit by doing something of value, and it can be measured monetarily. A malinvestment is a misappropriation of investable funds that are due to the influences of governmental interference. That is actually what we are seeing here, resources being directed into a sector of the economy due to governmental interference with the normal market signals. Will some benefit, yes, some always do when the government is involved, will those resources have been used for their highest economic ends, no probably not. But there is no way to know when the government can simply force others to give up their personal property to others so that they can go to beautician or culinary school, or any other education they may want.
RTPMarine wrote: I don't fancy any economic model over another. It's too much of a waste of energy. Instead of constantly fighting a broken system, I just do the best I can within it.
Now I understand why your economic thinking is such a contradictory jumble… It’s like some one that says, “reading is hard and a waste of my TV watchin’ time”, and then wants to debate the fine points of a novel they have never read…
RTPMarine wrote: Final Note: You guys all seem hell-bent on not hearing any line of economic thought that doesn't agree with your own.
If you provide facts, along with references, as I have we can have an actual discussion on those facts and their meaning. But, simply stating something is true because you have said so is not a discussion on facts, but a game of rhetoric, and yes rhetoric will change no ones mind.
So if you do decide to continue on this discussion, please provide facts and reference so all of us can see the direct material from which your information is being espoused.